i was listenning to a radio thing this morning about maimonides aka rambam...
XIIIth century jewish theologian, philosopher and medicin (not a cabbalist by any way).
it was really interesting because maimonides was one of the first among "traditionnalist jews" to think that there was a difference between "there is" and "it exists" to think that "it exists" was a quantifiyer and not a predicate...
but the steps he walked through to say that was very different from those of Aristotle or from the modern logicians. As it was founded in God essence (in the meaning of a personnal God).
so, in the end was he saying the same thing? I don't think so. In this way he was speaking about something really different than Aristotle or the modern logicians. The words are the same. The things that are behind are not. This is still Imho. And more an intuition than an argument.
I couldn't "prove it" by any way. If it may be proved.
