So, I understand how the math is being done now, but I disagree with it being done that way. This is what it's doing (without influence factored in, just for clarity's sake):
V = base
Value
R = bartering
Reduction (10% represented as 0.1 as it would be)
S = vendor
Sale price
S = (V * 2.5) - (V * R)
What you would expect is:
S = V * 2.5 * (1 - R)
or
S = V * (1 - R) * 2.5
Mathematically those latter two equations are the same, it's just a perception difference. You know, are you increasing the price for resale before applying the Bartering reduction, or applying the Bartering reduction before increasing the price. It comes out the same either way. You wouldn't expect that the reduction would be calculated separately and without factoring in the increase in price for resale, and then subtracted from the increased price, which is what's happening.
With Influence reduction (I):
What it does:
S = (V * 2.5) - (V * (R + I))
What it should do:
S = V * 2.5 * (1 - (R + I))
